Well, it was used that way by Homer in the 8th c. BC, but that doesn’t mean that was the dominant idea that came to mind to 1st. c. Jews & Christians, who had a Greek OT to shape their vocabulary. (Even outside the LXX inflence, the word had developed beyond a simple archery term.) This is a classical example of a fallacy taught to intro Greek students (I mean harmatano = “miss the mark”; I believe it’s used in Carson’s Exegetical Fallacies). Regardless, a word technically only means something in context, and authors use terms often with nuance distinctions. It is well known Paul takes the concept of sin beyond its Jewish conception, so it must be examined within his usage (Paul even sounds different than other NT writers).