Aquinas and Apologetics

Good. So we have three things:

The accounts of demon possession and exorcism in the Synoptics are meant historically. (Verified by J. Burke.)

The Christadelphians believe that there are no such things as demons or exorcisms. (Verifiable from various Christadelphian sources.)

It would seem to follow that Christadelphians must believe that the authors of the Synoptics were in error.

Is that the Christadelphian position, that there are historical/theological errors in the Gospels?

Why would that make them “in error”?

At the time the gospels were written, it was common to attribute to demon possession, what today we attribute to mental disease.

I would not call it an error, if their attibutions where consistent with the social practices of the time.

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It’s quite obviously an error, if there are no such things as demons, possession, or exorcism. If such things are not real, then the Gospel writers, in teaching that they were real, were teaching a falsehood. Whether the view was common in that era is completely irrelevant to the question whether the view is true or false.

Then you should toss out the entire Bible as obviously false. For, on your standard of truth, Genesis 1 is a falsehood.

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I’m not so sure about this.

If I was teaching “chemistry” in the 18th century and I didn’t teach atomic theory, is that an error? I really wouldn’t think so. I wouldn’t have had knowledge of it at the time. If I’m teaching physics in the present (as I am) and I teach only Newtonian mechanics and not quantum mechanics, am I wrong? Not necessarily. If it’s a course on atomic physics then yes, if it’s introductory physics for health science, then no. Both what I know, and the context/audience/purpose, matter.

Perhaps the human author thought it was demon-possession out of ignorance of psychological/physiological reasons. I don’t think that’s necessarily error. Of course, conversely it could have been demon-possession and our ignorance of the circumstances cause us to read 21st century psychology/physiology into the text. Can we tell the difference? How can we navigate the difference?

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If there really are errors there, wouldn’t it be best to acknowledge that? Are you a biblical inerrantist?

The error would not be that you failed to teach atomic theory. The error would be that you were teaching phlogiston theory or the four humors or alchemy or some other falsehood.

If the cause was not demons, and the authors said that it was demons, then the authors were in error.

Yes, it could have been. But the context of my discussion is the view of Christadelphians that demons and possessions do not exist. How can one say that demons and possession don’t exist, and not acknowledge that the Gospel writers were wrong to believe that they did?

Exactly my point. I’m asking J. Burke if the Christadelphians believe that the Gospel writers made an error about demons. I await his answer.

Not in the sense that Ken Ham is. But the question I was asking was whether Christadelphians were Biblical inerrantists. I don’t see how they could be, since they think demons don’t exist, and the Gospels attest to the existence of demons.

I don’t think you are following me. I have not claimed in this particular discussion that anything in the Bible is true or false. I have not said that demons do or do not exist. I am asking a particular question of a Christadelphian who knows the views of Christadelphians: whether Christadelphians (who reject the existence of demons and exorcisms) believe that the Gospel writers made an error, or whether they come up with some feat of intellectual athleticism that enables them to deny demons while maintaining that the Gospel writers made no error.

Remember how this started. A blunt charge was made that Aquinas was not seeking the truth, but only to fit things into a preconceived theology that he favored. It was mentioned in one case that Aquinas had no Biblical basis for his claims. I countered by asking what Biblical basis the Christadelphians have for disbelief in demons and exorcism. How do they discount the most natural sense of the narratives in three of the four Gospels? Are they not equally guilty of beating the Bible into the shape of some theology accepted on a priori grounds? The pot should not be calling the kettle black.

So you are, just in another sense, an inerrantist?

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No. This is a non sequitur. I refer you again to Galileo and the other examples I gave. You are making exactly the same mistake that YECs make when they read the Bible, and you are making the same arguments as them also. Meanwhile other people here have clearly understood the issue perfectly well. This does not speak well for your claims of hermeneutical knowledge.

I note you didn’t answer my question, which certainly explains your confusion over this topic.

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Saying something is a non sequitur does not make it so. Show why it is a non sequitur.

I know Galileo very well. I taught Galileo in a university course fairly recently, including the writings to which you are doubtless referring. You’re badly misapplying his discussion to the case of the Gospels.

No, I’m not. This has nothing whatever to do with YEC. Not just the YECs but all orthodox Christians of every stripe have accepted that demons and exorcisms are real. Only unorthodox Christian groups like the Christadelphians think otherwise. And since you have undertaken to criticize an orthodox Christian (Thomas Aquinas) on the grounds (among others) that he diverges from the teaching of the Bible, you have to meet the same standard you are demanding of Aquinas. Christadelphian doctrine departs from the most natural, unforced reading of the Gospel narratives. If you are willing to say that the Christadelphians have been wrong about demons and exorcism, then fine. But based on your responses so far, I don’t think you are willing to say that.

I suspect that your concession that the Gospel stories about demons and exorcism were “meant historically” contains an equivocation. If I’m wrong, you can show me by explaining what you mean by “meant historically.” And don’t waste your breath going on and on about what “scholarship” supposedly says. It isn’t necessary. (Especially since you frequently distort the scholarship, to slant its results in a direction pleasing to your own theological orientation.) Just explain your position in coherent English. If you can’t do that without throwing in “scholarship says this” and “scholarship says that,” it’s likely because you can’t defend it from the Greek Biblical text under your own steam, i.e., because you don’t have enough command of the Greek or the literary features of the narrative to make the case based on the text alone.

I don’t like the term “inerrantist,” because it calls up all kinds of associations that don’t reflect my understanding of Christianity or how to read the Bible. The majority of those who are called “inerrantists” typically insist on all kinds of things which I don’t think the Bible actually teaches. For example, I don’t think that the Genesis “teaches” that the world was created in six 24-hour days, even though it uses a scheme of six days for literary purposes. I might be an “inerrantist” in some broader, looser sense. But I think the term is so soiled by its association with cultural boorishness, that I’d rather it was retired from theological and religious discussion.

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If you don’t understand why it’s a non sequitur, that doesn’t say much for your ability to construct a syllogism. nwrickert and Jordan have both agreed that your conclusion does not proceed logically from your premise. Let’s look at it again.

Correct.

Correct.

Incorrect. Note that you have made no effort to explain how the conclusion proceeds logically from the preceding premises. This syllogism may help you understand what’s wrong with your argument.

  1. Person X believes that the account of Elijah’s confrontation with the prophets of Baal, in which Elijah speaks of Baal possibly being away or asleep, is meant historically.
  2. Person X does not believe Baal actually exists.
  3. It would seem to follow that person X must believe this part of the Bible is in error.

Here’s another one.

  1. Person X believes that the account of Genesis 1 is meant historically.
  2. Person X does not believe the universe was entirely created in just seven days.
  3. It would seem to follow that person X must believe this part of the Bible is in error.

Here’s another one.

  1. Person X believes that the Genesis account of the flood is meant historically.
  2. Person X does not believe the flood was global.
  3. It would seem to follow that person X must believe this part of the Bible is in error.

How did I guess you would say something like this?

Please demonstrate this. Do you agree with this reasoning that the apparently plain reading of the text is informed by evidence outside the text, so that the plain reading of the text may in fact be misleading without that external evidence?

Sure it does. You’re making the same argument they do; “The text plainly says X, so if you believe X isn’t true then you believe the Bible is in error”. You need to demonstrate how your methodology is any different to theirs.

And I am.

No, just as I am not equivocating when I say Genesis 1-3 are meant historically, or that the Genesis account of the flood is meant historically. Maybe it’s you equivocating on the meaning of “historically”.

Oh but it is necessary. Why do you want to avoid scholarship on this matter?

Demythologization.[1]


[1] See in particular Dunn and Twelftree. But you don’t accept scholarship, right?

Since you haven’t defined what you mean by “meant historically”, your “helpful” syllogisms aren’t very helpful.

Let’s try to make one of your examples more precise, by replacing the equivocal term “meant historically” with something more exact.

  1. Person X believes that Genesis teaches that a flood in approximately 3000 BC covered the entire land surface of what we now call the Earth.
  2. Person X believes that there was never a time when the entire land surface of the Earth was covered by the waters of a flood.
  3. It would seem to follow that Person X must believe that regarding the global extent of the Flood, the teaching of Genesis is in error.

The conclusion now follows from the premises.

By removing the ambiguous phrase “meant historically”, and substituting more concrete expressions, regarding the demon-possession stories in the Synoptics, one can obtain a similar result.

Why do you want to avoid discussing the Greek text of the Synoptics on this matter?

It figures. That’s in line with your general liberalization of exegesis and theology. I’m surprised the Christadelphians would invoke it, though. Biblicist sects generally don’t.

What you mean by that is: I don’t defer to the conclusions of the scholars you happen to agree with. It hardly follows that I don’t accept “scholarship.” Also, your conception of scholarship appears to be “showing erudition about current leading opinions”; my conception of scholarship, though it does not deny the value of consulting current opinions, is more focused on the mastery of primary texts. I haven’t seen such mastery in your comments on the Bible – only endless citations of scholars in an attempt to batter your opponents into submission to their authority (and hence to your conclusions). If you have really mastered the relevant texts, you shouldn’t need help from others to make a convincing case. So show us from the texts what the Gospel authors really meant when they told those stories about demons. Tell us what claims about reality they were making. And then tell us whether they erred in any of the claims that they made. If “scholarship” can’t handle such basic tasks, it isn’t good for very much.

I’m using it in the perfectly normal every day sense of a historical event.

Yes but that’s a completely different syllogism to the one I presented, and it’s not analogous to my beliefs about demons in the gospels, so it’s irrelevant. I note you’ve been unable to differentiate your personal argument from the hermeneutical method of the YECs and other fundamentalists.

But you can’t remove the phrase “meant historically” from my statement and replace it with something I don’t mean.

I don’t. You know full well I’ve written pages on the relevant Greek words, and had my work published in a peer reviewed and refereed scholarly journal. You also know that I don’t discuss the Greek without reference to scholarship. So again, why do you want to avoid discussing the scholarship?

But we’re not a Biblicist sect; we believe interpretation of the text must be informed by extra-Biblical sources of information, including scientific evidence and the socio-historical context.

No that is not what I mean. You regularly rail against mainstream modern scholarship. You dismiss historico-critical scholarship. You reject hermeneutical methods which have become de rigueur in modern scholarship. You describe scholarship you disagree with as “left-liberal-feminist”, “left-wing propaganda”, “modernist”, “Marxists”, and “deconstructionist”.

Then why don’t you clarify, by telling us your beliefs about demons in the gospels? (Your beliefs, not a string of citations to what scholars are saying.)

I read that work. It was primarily on the Apostolic Fathers’ understanding of the Gospel passages about demons, not on the text of the Gospels. I’m interested in your view of what the Synoptic Gospels teach about demons, possession and exorcism, not your view of what the Apostolic Fathers thought the Gospels taught, or of what the Apostolic Fathers themselves taught.

(I also read the critique of your essay by Thomas Farrar, and thought that he pointed out some serious weaknesses in your argument regarding the Apostolic Fathers, but as that is not my interest, I don’t make an issue of it here.)

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@Eddie and @Jonathan_Burke , please drop the scholarship and Greek line of back-and-forth.

@Jonathan_Burke, please stop calling @Eddie a Fundamentalist or implying as much, we’ve been down the unfruitful road several times. @Eddie, in turn you’ll need to extend the same courtesy to @Jonathan_Burke if it comes up.

Please try to stick to the more useful conversation about how each other’s approach toward Scripture, especially considering the demons/possession passages. I would like to break it out if it stays productive, otherwise we’ll have to just shut it down.

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I don’t dismiss all historico-critical scholarship. But I don’t worship it, as you seem to.

I couldn’t care less what is “de rigueur” in Biblical scholarship, evolutionary theory, climate change, or anything else. I demand convincing arguments.

As far as I can tell, your “hermeneutical method” to dispose of the clear claims of the Gospel writers regarding demons is (based on your statements on BioLogos, where you set forth your principles more clearly) to repeat “Second Temple Judaism” like a mantra, as if hoping that the authoritative, scholarly sound of the phrase will intimidate those who would rather talk about the text.

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Just got your note after posting my last, Jordan. Will try to work co-operatively.

I prefer to talk about Biblical texts and passages, because in a setting like this, where only a few of the readers are professional Biblical scholars or theologians, a trading back and forth of scholarly references is likely to be of less interest than a discussion of the relevant Biblical passages. I think many people here may be a little hesitant to enter the discussion when phrases like “demythologization” or “Second Temple Judaism” are inserted into the discussion, or when names of scholars they have never heard of are cited; but if particular passages of the Synoptic Gospels are discussed, that allows maximum participation by non-specialists, who can see for themselves how the texts are being interpreted and follow the reasoning.