I’m curious, @Guy_Coe, how you understand the passage in Mark 10:6-9
Explicitly quoted in that passage are OT references to Gen 1:1, Gen 1:27; and Gen 2:24.
And implicitly he is referring to the couple, Adam and Eve, instituting marriage (joined by God at the beginning).
Is Jesus merely accommodating his first century Jewish audience and carelessly joining two texts that are referring to two different things?