If GAE were true, the God of the OT is worse than Dawkins and Hitchens describe

In the context of this argument, that is an inference to what God must be like to be the ground of objective moral values, but it has independent justification in some of the more comprehensive forms of the ontological argument. Similarly for the obedience due to God. (The justification via the ontological argument depends on the premise that necessary goodness and worthiness of worship and obedience are forms of perfection, and I admit can only offer intuition in support of those premises. Nevertheless, I think they are more probable than not.)

But we do have more than ā€œwhat God is likeā€; we have the moral intuitions that God has given us to guide us in what is good. These are fallible (because of our fallen nature) but still a valid source of knowledge.

Thereā€™s obviously more than one such difficulty of the kind you reference here, and the response may vary depending on which one it is, specifically. I recommend Paul Copanā€™s Is God a Moral Monster? for its treatment of such issues. There was also a thread on the forums here a while back that had an article on the interpretation of the book of Joshua, in the form of a dialogue, which offers an alternative to Copan on the Canaanite genocide question specifically. Clay Jonesā€™ Why Does God Allow Evil? touches on your objection here as well.

So you can offer no argument in support of your central premise. The ontological argument is perhaps the worst of all argument advanced for Godā€™s existence; a lot of people think itā€™s meaningless, and Iā€™m one of them.

Yet your claim is that we canā€™t use those intuitions when considering Godā€™s actions, so they are in the current case inapplicable.

Take Job as a start. How can you defend God persecuting him (by delegation) as a result of a bet with the underling actually doing the persecuting?

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So, my take on the Euthyphro dilemma is nothing original: it simply flows out of my stance as a classical theist. I believe in divine simplicity, the idea that God is a metaphysically simple being. What this means is that Godā€™s attributes are identical to what he is: God literally is his goodness, love, omniscience, omnipotence, immutability, etc. Contrast this with all other beings, which have a combination of essential and accidental attributes. For example, the color of my hair is black. I could dye my hair green and still retain my identity as me, because the color of my hair is an accidental feature. One can also imagine that I suffer a terrible accident that makes me unable to walk. Yet even without my ability to walk, I would retain my identity as me.

Not so with God. None of Godā€™s attributes or powers can be changed (even hypothetically) without denying the very existence of God. Once again, God is his goodness, God is his mercy, God is his omniscience and omnipotence and so on. Thus, the different attributes of God are really referring to the same attribute - his essence, which is a complete unity. This is what distinguishes God from other beings, including hypothetical super-powerful, technological advanced aliens from Planet X. For one can imagine a universe where these aliens did not possess the abilities they had yet still lived in Planet X. This is not the case with God.

  1. You might ask, what proof or evidence do I have that God is simple? The short answer is that there is no proof needed, because for me, God as simple is part of my definition of what or who God is. If your idea of God doesnā€™t include simplicity, then youā€™re not even talking about what I mean by the word ā€œGodā€.

  2. Now, you could ask me why I think God exists at all. Thatā€™s a legitimate question, but thatā€™s not the topic under discussion right now.

Thus, in this view, the force of the Euthyphro dilemma evaporates. Certain actions are good because God approves of them. But Godā€™s approval is not arbitrary: it flows out of his very being, which is immutable and simple. The goodness of moral commands are grounded in the very being of God, which cannot be altered, even hypothetically. There is no hypothetical universe where God is evil or whimsical, for such a being would not be God. You would be asking: is there a hypothetical universe where God is not God? That would be a nonsensical question.

  1. Next, to answer a similar objection:

Thatā€™s the point: the only reason a standard of good makes any sense whatsoever is because the standard is Godā€™s goodness itself. If God were not the standard for good, then once again, divine simplicity takes over: God would not be God, and youā€™re back to stating a self-contradiction.

  1. But how do we reconcile God as the standard of goodness with the actions and commands of God in the Old Testament?
    a. This objection assumes that weā€™ve interpreted the moral ramifications of Godā€™s actions and commands in the OT properly. Matt has, for example, suggested some people who argue that the descriptions of Godā€™s actions, if properly understood within the cultural context, were not evil.
    b. This objection assumes a completely different conception of God, one in which God has the same moral obligations like humans. This doesnā€™t make sense. We hold children, mentally ill people, and animals to different moral standards than regular humans. So why should we think God, a perfectly simple being, has the same moral obligations as regular humans? In fact, if we look through the Bible, some things (such as vengeance) are prohibited because it is Godā€™s prerogative to do them, not humansā€™.
    c. At most, this objection proves that the Old Testament is not an accurate description of Godā€™s actions. This, by itself, is insufficient to defeat theism. For Iā€™ve been defending classical theism in this post, not Christianity. While I of course donā€™t believe this, it is entirely possible that the Bible is not infallible and yet God still exists.

Too bad for you? The ontological argument that I advance is formally valid. Thereā€™s no question of whether it is meaningful or not (unless you are some kind of non-cognitivist about either God or modal logic more generally); the question is whether the premises are true or not.

Eventually the inferential regress must come to a halt. Heard of properly basic beliefs? Our intuitions, though fallible, supply some of these. Example: the necessary truth of the rules of deductive inference themselves is not something we can come to know either empirically (since that could never tell us their necessity) or by inference from other knowledge (since inference presupposes their validity). So I see no problem with arguing from premises supported by intuition.
Of course, you may not share those intuitions. But a substantial number of philosophers and theologians throughout history have considered what a perfect being would have to be like, so itā€™s not like these are merely my own private intuitions either.

No, that is not what I claim. What I claim is that we do not have enough knowledge to definitively say that God lacks morally sufficient reasons to allow the evils we observe. I do not claim that we are unable to judge whether a particular event in itself is something good or something evil, nor do I claim that we would be unable to evaluate Godā€™s reasons with our moral intuitions if we did have enough knowledge to do so.
In other words, we can differentiate between the kinds of things where something is good (so God is justified in bringing it about for its own sake) and when something is an evil (when that would not hold). That is perfectly sufficient for meeting the objection you raised on this point.

I can make a couple of guesses on Godā€™s reasons for bringing that about (strengthening Jobā€™s character so that he is able to enter into deeper relationship with God and therefore better enjoy the greatest possible good for eternity; providing an example for others who go through suffering they canā€™t understand). And I can note again that he does no wrong to Job in bringing such things about, given that he has such reasons and that he is not subject to moral obligations towards us the way we are to each other.
But my point is that I donā€™t need to know Godā€™s reasons to have sufficient cause to trust that he in fact does have such reasons. So I donā€™t actually feel the need to have a complete answer for why God put Job through what he did.

Proof by definition? Not a good argument. Nor does simplicity imply goodness.

I think everything youā€™ve said in that post is nonsensical, unfortunately. God has some kind of essence? OK, letā€™s suppose that. His essence is good? But how can you say that unless you have a standard of goodness against which to measure him?

How do you know that our universe is one in which the being you would call God exists rather than the being you wouldnā€™t?

Sorry, that makes no sense itself. Thatā€™s just down to ā€œgoodness is whatever God isā€, and weā€™re back to Euthyphro.

And described motivations, donā€™t forget.

Would you agree with ā€œsome peopleā€? Genocide is fine, within the proper cultural context?

Ah, as I suggested, itā€™s ā€œdo as I say, not what I do.ā€ I donā€™t consider that moral.

Now I would agree with that. Itā€™s not an accurate description of anything real, for the most part.

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The question is whether the premises are not even wrong.

I do. Itā€™s a copout. So is appeal to authority or some number of authorities.

I donā€™t believe it is. We canā€™t judge whether something is evil, only that it appears, at the moment, evil. Or such is the claim necessary to justify evil. We must assume that all evil is just unrecognized good.

The reasons are specified in the text. Havenā€™t you read it? Itā€™s a bet.

That must be a great comfort to his dead family and servants.

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Then why are you bothering to respond to nonsense? Thatā€™s even more nonsensical. Should I take any of your objections seriously if you are actually responding to what you think is nonsense?

Because God by definition is good. Thatā€™s why weā€™re talking about God at all. Your objections are all wrongheaded because you seem to assume I want to point to a specific creature (for example, the God of the Bible, read through Harshmanā€™s lens of interpretation), and then argue that that creature fulfills Harshmanā€™s intuition of goodness. Thatā€™s not what Iā€™m talking at all.

Rather, Iā€™m pointing to Harshmanā€™s intuition of goodness and arguing that if it is objectively actually good, that must only be because there is a higher standard of goodness that exists somewhere. I argue that it exists in God.

Do you think everyone has the same moral obligations?

On the contrary, I think you need to reread Euthyphro and articulate the dilemma properly. I donā€™t understand your objection to me. Perhaps make a little bit more of an effort to flesh out your posts since Iā€™ve done so on my part. Thatā€™s just courtesy.

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To determine whether you can defend it, of course.

Thatā€™s circular. God by definition is good and good by definition is what God is.

Well, I donā€™t claim that there is objective good. And you donā€™t argue that it exists in God; you claim that by definition it exists in God. That doesnā€™t work.

They would if there were an objective standard.

There are only two ways out of the circularity. Either ā€œgoodā€ means something more than ā€œwhat God isā€, and thereā€™s an external, objective standard by which we can realize that God is good, or there is no objective good, just something human society makes for itself. In either case, God is not the objective standard of good.

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Really? Does a parent have the same moral obligations as a child?

Do you know what ā€œnonsenseā€ means?

Yep, itā€™s circular because thatā€™s the definition of God. Iā€™m not interested in defending the idea of a God that isnā€™t good by definition.

Sorry, thatā€™s not quite accurate. Socrates asks Euthyphro: are pious men loved by the gods because they are pious or are they pious because they are loved by the gods?

Horn 1: Pious men are loved by the gods because they are pious.
Implication: piousness is grounded in an external standard of piousness, not the gods.

Horn 2: Pious men are pious because they are loved by the gods.
Implication: piousness is arbitrary, subject to the whims of the gods (who often donā€™t even agree with each other).

The classical theist option: Instead of many gods, there is only one, unchanging God, who is identical with piousness and love itself. Pious men are pious insofar as they participate in the piousness of God.
Implication: piousness is grounded in Godā€™s piousness (horn 1) but piousness itself is not arbitrary (horn 2), for God is piousness, and God is immutable. Thus piousness is also immutable.

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Who decided that?

I can just say it isnā€™t. God is evil, by definition. And that is the definition. Now what?

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You decided the moment you decided to talk to me about God. :grinning:

Note Iā€™m saying more than God is necessarily good, Iā€™m saying that God is literally goodness itself.

We would be talking about different ideas of God. Iā€™m not interested in believing in nor discussing a God that is necessarily evil.

Iā€™m not trying to persuade you that God is necessarily evil, or to believe that an evil God exists. Iā€™m trying to get you to see the folly of just insisting that God is good by definition.

In a roundabout way, you seem to be essentially conceding to a form of moral relativism. What is morally good is just what anyone personally defines to be goodness, and nobody can show anyone else to be objectively wrong because itā€™s just a matter of personal whim and upbringing how people define what is morally good or morally evil.

Fair enough. But since I know what I mean when I state the premises of the ontological argument, I find the claim the they are meaningless a pretty hard sell.

Iā€™m fairly confident that you rely on precisely that kind of ā€œcopoutā€ when you object that Godā€™s actions or motivations as described in the Bible are not moral. Normative principles arenā€™t obtained (wholly) empirically.

It seems you are conceiving of the evaluation of good and evil in different terms than I am, if you leave no room for the distinction between what is good and evil intrinsically and what is morally justified for God to bring about all things considered. So if you want to phrase it that way, then sure, my position is essentially that all evil is just unrecognized good (with the big caveat that I would make the above distinction). But it is not actually something Iā€™m assuming. Itā€™s something Iā€™m inferring from other things I believe to be reasonably justified.

Right, I forgot to add the obvious ā€œdemonstrate Jobā€™s faithfulness to the accuser (and the other members of the divine council, presumably)ā€ item to the list of Godā€™s reasons.
Thatā€™sā€¦ probably more significant than we realize, actually. Given the worldview of the ancient Israelites, I doubt it would be in accord with the intent of the author of Job to read this as God playing frivolous games with someoneā€™s life. Rather, it may be more accurate to say it was to answer a question about the nature of human (and perhaps by extension, angelic) loyalty to God, a question with serious spiritual import. I ought not to have forgotten that!

You asked about the justice of what happened to Job. What God allowed the accuser to do to Jobā€™s family and servants is another question, with a different answer. Like I said, though, I donā€™t feel the need to have a complete answer. I donā€™t know any of the specifics for why God allows people to die in tsunamis, either, but that does not mean I am unjustified in trusting that he does have reason.

Rumraket, your lack of a philosophical background here shows. You are confusing moral epistemology with moral ontology. The former deals with how we can know what is morally good. The latter deals with whether objective moral values exist at all. Do you understand the difference?

In this discussion, I am primarily talking about moral ontology, not epistemology. What that means is that even if you think A is good while I think not-A is good (because we disagree on how to do moral epistemology), my point is that in both cases, A (or not-A) is good only as far as they participate in Godā€™s goodness.

Perhaps you could state them and tell me what you mean by them.

Iā€™m unsure of the source of your confidence.

What are those other things?

Why is that demonstration so important as to be worth dozens of deaths and other suffering?

Itā€™s the same question in the book of Job, as all those deaths are just part of Jobā€™s persecution, and otherwise not important.

So, your solution to the problem of evil is to say ā€œWhat evil? I donā€™t see any evil.ā€

Either you mean something different by ā€œgoodnessā€ or something different by ā€œliterallyā€. Goodness is the condition or property of being good, and yet God is not a condition or property. ā€œLiterallyā€, on the other hand, means the opposite of figuratively, so you are saying that God truly is the condition or property of being good. Iā€™ve heard that claim before, but I find it hard to believe that itā€™s intended literally.

Does what youā€™re interested in have any necessary relation to truth? You think God is good, and your current justification for that belief is, apparently, that you want to think so and you refuse to consider anything else. Thatā€™s not a justification.

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Well, I do intend it literally. Think of God more as an abstract principle that unifies the universe, rather than a bearded man in the sky which happens to be really powerful and good.

Iā€™m not trying to justify my belief in God in this thread. Instead, Iā€™m explaining how the Euthyphro dilemma works within the context of my belief system.

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Sorry, but goodness isnā€™t an abstract principle that unifies the universe. Goodness is not a principle capable of creating a universe. Principles donā€™t do anything.

I think you are failing in that. And it isnā€™t as if I havenā€™t heard this claim before. I donā€™t think itā€™s coherent.

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What is goodness then?

Given your short, impulsive responses in this thread, I doubt that youā€™ve attempted to seriously consider what I actually wrote. All of your criticisms miss the point, as you keep trying to fit my beliefs into a predetermined box in your mind of what God is and what Christians must believe.

Unlike you, here Iā€™ve actually tried my best to articulate my own beliefs cogently, anticipating objections and explaining what I mean. It would be more interesting if you could at least do the same in return (even if you disagree with me) but youā€™re not.

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No, Iā€™m not, and youā€™re not showing that merely by pointing out what the difference is.

The former deals with how we can know what is morally good. The latter deals with whether objective moral values exist at all. Do you understand the difference?

Yes, but the two are intricately linked. To say that something exists (such as objective moral values) is a claim Iā€™m going to need to be persuaded of in some way. That means I want to know how you know that. You are making some sort of fact-claim by saying objective moral standards exist. I want to see how you intend to support that fact-claim.

All I see is you just making the claim. And by making claiming the contrary, I am hoping to persuade you to see that we do not establish what is objectively true, we do not come to know what is factual, merely by assertion.

In this discussion, I am primarily talking about moral ontology, not epistemology.

Yes, and Iā€™m trying to get you to understand that you do not show that objective moral values exist simply by asserting that they do.

You do not establish that objective moral values exist just by parroting the statement ā€œGod IS goodness itselfā€. Thatā€™s not how we show that something exists, nor how we show a proposition to be objectively true.

If you want to argue that there is an objective moral standard, youā€™re going to have to do some act of persuasion here. That means you need to make some arguments that arenā€™t just examples of question-begging assertions.

What that means is that even if you think A is good while I think not-A is good (because we disagree on how to do moral epistemology), my point is that in both cases, A (or not-A) is good only as far as they participate in Godā€™s goodness.

Yeah thatā€™s your point, but your point is just your opinion as far as I can see. What is missing is something that makes your opinion a statement about what is objectively true. I want to know how you intend to make the case for your opinion that ā€œA is good only as far as they participate in Godā€™s goodnessā€ being an objective fact.

I suspect you know, already now, that you can not actually do this. That all you have here is the assertion, and that it weighs no more than mine. That there really doesnā€™t actually exist an objective moral standard. Even if God exists, nothing makes it an objective fact that God is the moral standard for anything. That will always just be an assertion you canā€™t show to be true. An opinion for you to state.

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