I think I’m correct to say that you cannot observe the existence of a quantum particle as a waive function. It is an unusual type of inference based on, as far as I can tell, the fact that we can’t measure both the velocity and position of quantum particles at the same time.
But to my knowledge, there is absolutely no actual observation of particles existing as as wave functions before being measured, nor any scientific evidence for the existence of a “wave function” other than as an abstract object.
Where is the scientific evidence that an abstract object can exist as a concrete object? My understanding is that this whole notion is an inference that was derived based on logical positivism; if it can’t be measured, in some odd way, it doesn’t exist.
Logical positivism has long been dismissed as a logically incoherent position. Unfortunately, I would argue, its effect on the scientific community is still present to this day, including the acceptance of the incredibly odd notion that a quantum particle can exist as a wave function until it is measured.
As for the double slit experiment, to me, all that shows is that measurement affects how quantum particles behave, which is understandable, since as I understand it, that’s what the uncertainty principle is founded on.
The redshift, the cmbr, and entropy are the main ones. At least those are the ones I’m familiar with. I imagine there’s more as well. But my understanding is that there is no scientific evidence at all for a universe without a beginning. I assume no one would object to that claim? If so then they would need to provide the scientific evidence that would show otherwise.
On top of that, there are several pretty compelling philosophical arguments for a universe with a beginning, i.e., the impossibility of an infinite regress of actual events. Besides objecting to those particular arguments for a beginning, I would imagine there must be some philosophical arguments for a beginningless universe, but I’m not familiar with any.
Probably someone else on the forum here knows some. Of course there’s always the brute fact argument. But that has no explanatory power to speak of at all. So to me, it’s a kind of lame argument.