Problem caused by labeling Neanderthals, Denosivans as not Human

Here is a 40,000 years old European who has long sections of Neanderthal DNA in his genome. It looks like one of great great grandparents was a Sapien/Neanderthal couple. Was this an example as per Fuz Raza an example of bestiality of a human mating with an animal? How would you describe the child of such an unholy mating? Is the child half human/half animal? If we use the word human to describe behavior not genomics, how was Neanderthal parent different in behavior to the Sapiens parent? Something right must have happened as remnants of the Neanderthal parent’s genome lasted to have a great great grandchild. Was this person only 92% human? And are/were all present day and ancient Eurasians only 92 to 98% human? And are all sub Suharian Africans the only 100% human people alive today? I think we should be very careful of labeling any species of the genus homo to be not human. What we call human behavior evolved gradually over a million years over many species of the genus homo. Maybe agriculture and animal husbandry of the past 12,000 years put humanness into hyper mode. But to say that any species of homo was more or less human than any other species of homo in the time period from 1.8 MYA to 40,000 years old when homo sapiens were the only surviving species of the genus homo remaining would not be based on any historical archaeological or genomic facts.

A post was merged into an existing topic: Were Neanderthals Humans?

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