It means “God with us”.
When did Mary call Jesus “Immanuel”?
In which case, as is so often the case, when religious believers are not analyzing their own religion they are perfectly able to see straight through it. In this case Muslims seem to be reasoning correctly about Christianity.
But why do you think it requires a massive conspiracy?
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Are you claiming that the authors of the NT were not aware of the “prophecies” made in the OT?
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Of course they were. They were not able to cause the events to occur.
Jesus brothers Jude and James converted after the resurrection. Paul also converted. Why would they convert if the story was not true?
You also have half dozen other writers telling the same story. This is collaboration and would require a conspiracy for it to be false.
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You need to understand the context of the bible. Some events may not have occurred yet. All Abrahamic religions expect Christ to return.
And, of course, you have no clue as to how this throws your entire claim of “fulfilled prophecies” out the window.
But they certainly could write stories in which the prophecies they wanted to convince people had been fulfilled, were fulfilled. Obviously.
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All of Muhammad’s followers converted to Islam. Does that mean he really did hear the voice of God telling him Jesus did not die on the cross?
A conspiracy of mass deception.
Do you have evidence that the events written down did not occur?
From Luke: Jesus reading on the Sabbath in Nazareth from Isaiah 61.
Luke 4:18-21 New International Version (NIV)
18 “The Spirit of the Lord is on me,
because he has anointed me
to proclaim good news to the poor.
He has sent me to proclaim freedom for the prisoners
and recovery of sight for the blind,
to set the oppressed free,
19 to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor.”[a]
20 Then he rolled up the scroll, gave it back to the attendant and sat down. The eyes of everyone in the synagogue were fastened on him. 21 He began by saying to them, “Today this scripture is fulfilled in your hearing.”
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Muslims and Jews expect Jesus to return? Really? I highly doubt that.
If Jesus didn’t fulfill the Messianic prophecies then he didn’t fulfill them. If you can be the Messiah by claiming you will come back and fulfill them someday then anyone can be the Messiah.
This is true.
Sure. It does not mean he won’t in the future. Have you read Revelations? Here is a video followed by another that will bring you up to speed.
That’s why it’s not a prophecy, because no date was set. There is no amount of time that could pass where you would not be able to just say “It could still happen in the future”. A valid prophecy would have to be falsifiable, which means it needs to put a specific, and preferrably short-enough timetable that people alive when the prophecy was made would be able to determine it’s potential falsification.
There are many that fall into this category. The transfiguration happened 6 days after Jesus pre announced it to the disciples. The prophecies span over all time frames.
Daniel 9 predicted a specific time for Christs crucification.
Until Jesus does, he has not fulfilled the Messianic prophecies.
That’s not that hard to do when you write gospels after the fact.
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This is true although he has fulfilled many of them already.
Slightly corrected the Jews expect for the Messiah to come to earth at end times. I should separate the Jewish Messiah from the Yeshua (Jesus) of Christianity, Messianic Judaism and Islam.
No. Just another example of “faith” ie. religious people believing stuff for no good reason.
That’s not how any of this work. Stuff being written down is not good evidence that something happened. The burden of proof is on you.
Actually, Muslims do expect Jesus to return on the Day of Judgment. I don’t think Jews have any reason to think this, though.
Ignoring for a moment that some of them may not be Messianic prophecies, it is worth noting that the prophecies that Jesus is claimed to have fulfilled are prophecies that can’t be contradicted by extra-biblical sources. It would be rather obvious to everyone if Jerusalem was made safe by Jesus or if Judah was saved. It would also have been obvious if Jesus was a king with a dominion that stretched from sea to sea.
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We have prophecy of Jesus and fulfillment of many of those prophecies.
So you have no evidence to support your claim other that materialist bias.
The historical data supports that Jesus was the fulfillment of the Messianic prophecies in the OT.
This history was written over 2000 years. How it all works together is remarkable.
There is no historical evidence.
Religious extremists who believe in the historicity of the NT do not understand how history is practiced.
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