Did Jesus Fulfill Messianic Prophecies?

Currently over half the world population is Muslim or Christian I think his dominion does stretch from sea to sea.

If I get to write the accounts afterwards, I can correctly predict every winning lottery number.

Jesus didn’t smite the enemies of Jerusalem, didn’t free Judah, didn’t rule as king over a dominion that stretched from sea to sea, and so on.

It’s not that hard to figure out. It isn’t that hard to write a story about someone fulfilling prophecies when you already know what the prophecies are, just as long as the person in the story doesn’t fulfill prophecies that can be contradicted by the facts of the time.

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The prophecies didn’t say that the Messiah would start a religion that went across the globe after 2,000 years.

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If you are going to permit metaphors, then every single prophecy ever made by anyone could be “fulfilled.”

You believe in the mass conspiracy theory that this was a big fraud written after the fact. How did Daniel pick the time of the crucification? How did Isaiah predict a person would die and come to life and then be fulfilled by multiple witnesses? How did Isaiah predict the nature of Jesus? How did he predict that he would not contest his execution? Why would Jesus allow this to happen without it being the will of God?

You guys are betting on a conspiracy theory.

Half the worlds population believing that Jesus was the Jewish Messiah is not just a metaphor it’s a stunning outcome.

Here, Bill. We’ll show you how it works:

I prophesy that, in a future post in this discussion, @T_aquaticus will write the sentence “The rain in Spain falls mainly in he plain.”

What are the odds that this would happen, just by chance?

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I’m just saying that it isn’t that hard to write a story of a person fulfilling prophecies when you already know what the prophecies are. It gets even easier if the character in the story gets to fulfill them at some point in the future.

Where is crucifixion even mentioned in Daniel?

The same way that I can accurately pick last weeks lottery numbers.

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The rain in Spain falls mainly in he plain.

Prophecy fulfilled.

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For some reason, my last post fell afoul of our “community standards.”

Anyway, Bill, do you believe I have now demonstrated the powers of prophesy? By your standards, I have.

From Daniel 9 24 “Seventy ‘sevens’[c] are decreed for your people and your holy city to finish[d]transgression, to put an end to sin, to atone for wickedness, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the Most Holy Place.[e]

25 “Know and understand this: From the time the word goes out to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until the Anointed One,[f] the ruler, comes, there will be seven ‘sevens,’ and sixty-two ‘sevens.’ It will be rebuilt with streets and a trench, but in times of trouble. 26 After the sixty-two ‘sevens,’ the Anointed One will be put to death and will have nothing.[g

It describes the Anointed One as a ruler. Jesus was not a ruler.

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Interesting comment.

מָשִׁ֣יחַ the direct translation is Messiah.

No answer from Bill.

It seems Jesus never was called “Immanuel”. So either the prophecy was wrong, or it wasn’t about Jesus.

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Hi Roy
Immanuel as a description of Jesus is confirmed in Mathew.

22 All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: 23 “The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel”[g](which means “God with us”).

In Hebrew names were used to describe the essence of someone. In the case of God and Jesus multiple names were used. The most important point is not the name but what it describes, “God with us”

I will just draw attention to part of the passage you quote:

22 All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet

How much more transparent does it have to be in order for you to admit these Gospels were propagandistically written specifically to persuade people that Jesus was the “messiah” promised in the OT?

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Matthew is describing the prophecy here, saying that it was prophesied that Jesus would be called Emmanuel. But Matthew doesn’t say Jesus was called “Emmanuel” - he says Jesus was called “Jesus”.

Matthew is doing the same thing you are, claiming that the prophecy was fulfilled even though Jesus wasn’t called “Immanuel”.

Do you have any reason to think Mary ever called Jesus “Immanuel” other than that is what the prophecy said he would be called? I don’t think you do.

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Since he clearly was the Jewish Messiah it is not a hard case to make. Re read the story of Abraham to understand the significance of how he fulfilled the prophecies and absolved the real issue man has to deal with which is sin.

The key importance is when you get to understand the Bible better you will understand the importance of the New Testament and its connection to the Old Testament or the Jewish Tanakh.

I don’t think it is important how Mary referred to Jesus. You need to read all of Isaiah to put this into context. In Isaiah 9.6 he was referred to a Wonderful counsellor, Prince of peace, Mighty God, Holy one. It is possible that Mary never used any of these names either.