Jeanson is now finding a reason to ignore neanderthal DNA

[Tim]

@thoughtful

You missed previous conversations …

@misterme987 didn’t miss much – you presented no evidence for this absurd hypothesis.

@thoughtful

… my hypothesis for the more ancient individuals is that it’s practically impossible to place them on a phylogeny. Too many of the same mutations with a fast mutation rate, and probably 1/3 to 1/4 of mutations are back mutations. All of that plus extreme drift means that lineage was likely lost and shares mutations with R1b.

I previously challenged this hypothesis:

@Tim

@thoughtful

… which seems very improbable after 5000 years because of the extreme drift of the y-chromosome …

Do you have any evidence of this “extreme drift of the y-chromosome” other than Jeanson’s amateurish, make-it-up-as-he-goes-along, thoroughly-debunked attempts at Population Genetics? This would seem to be nothing but ‘Begging the Question’ – assuming that Jeanson is right in order to ‘prove’ that he’s right.

To which you gave the evidence-free response:

@thoughtful

That’s just the science of it. You can find out faster through a web search or YouTube video than I can explain it to you.

Thus this “hypothesis” of yours is supported by no evidence and has no better status than the hypothesis that the Moon is made of green cheese.

Also, even “with a fast mutation rate” the idea that the exact same specific set of mutations (in order to get to R1b) independently occurred twice in populations inhabiting the exact same regions, separated by thousands of years, is absurdly improbable, and thus implausible. As I said in the previous thread:

@Tim

We are left with two facts:

1. R1b existed in Western Europe in the Stone Age.
2. R1b exists in Western Europe today.

Yes, it is possible (but only the barest possibility) that (i) the Stone Age R1b population died out – but we have no evidence of this, and (ii) that some other groups migrated into Western Europe bringing R1b back with them – but again we have no evidence of this.

By Occam’s Razor, the simplest, and so best, explanation is that R1b simply continued to exist in Western Europe (being diluted in some areas by migrations of Carthaginians, Greeks, Germans, Norse, etc, etc) throughout history. This, I think, will remain the best explanation until some actual evidence can be found that casts doubt on it.

It would appear Valerie, that you have learned nothing from previous threads.