The odds of John Smith winning the lottery are 1 in 100 million before the drawing. If John Smith wins, then the odds of John Smith winning are 1 in 1. That’s the difference.
While we applaud Ewert’s attempt to address the data, his model still falls well short, even according to Ewert himself. You can find a discussion here:
The odds of John Smith having won the lottery are not 1 in 100 million before the drawing. The probability is 0.0. Since the probabilty of him having won the lottery before the drawing is 0.0 he cannot possibly win the lottery.
If you toss a coin but don’t yet know the outcome which event is it that has a probability of 1? The coin has already been tossed. The outcome is certain. To which event will you assign the probability “1”?
Please stop changing the analogy. Address the one that has already been given.
“We could also use the lottery to help illustrate the inevitability of improbability. In our example, the chances of winning the lottery is 1 in 100 million. There are exactly 100 million tickets sold in each drawing, and every drawing has a single winner.”
What are the odds that John Smith will win PRIOR TO THE DRAWING???
There are two possibilities, not 100 million possibilities. John Smith has either won the lottery or John Smith has not won the lottery. The probability that John Smith has won a lottery that has not taken place is 0.
does not matter, the probability is the same before and after, the fact it came up is because of chance 1/6, not 1, the fact we say there is 1/6 of time chance it will be 6, so, 1/6 chance is realized, it does not automatically become 1,