If in the simple example,
W_A = W_a
there is no natural selection. For there to be natural selection this condition has to be violated. When this condition is violated it becomes meaningful to relate the absolute fitnesses in terms of their ratios with one another, and hence the concept of relative fitness emerges.
Since this is an asexual example there is no real distinction between allele and what is known as a genotype, but I will defer dealing with the nuance of sexually reproducing species for later.
Using Joe’s numbers from page 55-57, suppose
W_A = 101
and
W_a = 100
If we use the uppercase W to signify and absolute fitness we can use the lower case w to signify a relative fitness.
We can define a relative fitness w for each of the alleles A and a scaling down the absolute fitnesses through a process of dividing each of the absolute fitnessess by an arbitrarily chosen absolute fitnesses of one of the alleles.
To illustrate how to do this in this example, let’s arbitrarily choose to divide by W_a to scale the absolute fitnesses into relative ones:
\LARGE w_a = \frac{W_a}{W_a} = 1
\LARGE w_A = \frac{W_A}{W_a} = 1.01
we can further define a quantity s, where s is called the selection co-efficient as:
s \equiv w_A - w_a
this implies
s = w_A - 1
which implies
w_A = s + 1
provided we are scaling the absolute fitness by dividing by W_a. By doing this we are saying the s-coefficient favors A .
We can additionally represent the relationships of the relative fitnesses with this symbolic notation
w_A:w_a
where the colon means we are considering the relative fitness of the alleles A and a
but this notation implies (by substituting the values of w_A and w_a)
1 + s : 1
which is reflected in Joe’s book page 55-57, but I derived it in a slightly different way above.
BUT Joe points out a complication, suppose we make W_A as the value by which to scale the absolute fitnesses down to relative fitnesses?
then,
\LARGE w_a = \frac{W_a}{W_A} = \frac{100}{101}=0.99009900\bar{9}\bar{9}\bar{0}\bar{0}
\LARGE w_A = \frac{W_A}{W_A} = 1
following convention of defining s as:
s \equiv w_A - w_a
which implies
w_A - \frac{100}{101}=1 - 0.99009900\bar{9}\bar{9}\bar{0}\bar{0} = 0.00990099\bar{0}\bar{0}\bar{9}\bar{9}
One immediately sees that the value of s is dependent on which allele is used as a reference! In this case we say the s-coefficient is against a. This can be a source of confusion, obviously!
Furthermore, if allele A is used as a reference, and s=0.00990099\bar{0}\bar{0}\bar{9}\bar{9} the conventional symbolic representation for
w_A : w_a
must be
1 : 1 - s
which implies
1 : 1- 0.00990099\bar{0}\bar{0}\bar{9}\bar{9}
which implies
1 : 0.99009900\bar{9}\bar{9}\bar{0}\bar{0}
To restate where care is in order, note that this form of stating relative fitnesses of w_A:w_a by
1 + s: 1
is saying the selection coefficient, the s-coefficient is in favor of A
Whereas,
1 : 1- s
is saying the s-coefficient s is against a.
And again, s has a different meaning depending on which convention is adopted!